Okay, so I know that the very definition of a biconditional statement is two statements that are mutually implicit and cannot exist without each other, but I want to challenge that. My tutor and I haven’t found one yet, so maybe someone else can help us: Is there at statement for which the converse is true, but the pair of statements do not form a biconditional statement? i.e., p →q and q →p, but it could be that q →x also, or q →p & z, or p →h, while p and q remain mutually implicative, just without necessarily excluding other variables? “If and only if” would not be included in the structure of the resulting statement.
I will now commence spamming every social network I am on in search of an answer.
Here are Karate Cats:
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